1. Read these
In an Iowa courtroom, an astonishing case of sex and Alzheimer’s
Sex, Dementia and a Husband on Trial at Age 78
Iowa Code 709.4: 709.4 SEXUAL ABUSE IN THE THIRD DEGREE.
A person
commits sexual abuse in the third degree when the person
performs a sex
act under any of the following circumstances:
1. The act is done by force or against the will
of the other
person, whether
or not the other person is the person's spouse or is
cohabiting with
the person.
2. The act is between persons who are not at the
time cohabiting
as husband and
wife and if any of the following are true:
a. The
other person is suffering from a mental defect or
incapacity which
precludes giving consent.
….
4. The act is performed while the other person
is mentally
incapacitated,
physically incapacitated, or physically helpless.
Sexual abuse
in the third degree is a class "C" felony.
Ohio Code 2907.02
Rape.
(A)
(1) No person shall
engage in sexual conduct with another who is not the spouse of the offender or
who is the spouse of the offender but is living separate and apart from the
offender, when any of the following applies:
….
2. Some purely legal
questions:
Between cohabiting spouses, sex is permitted even if one
spouse suffers from “a mental defect or incapacity which precludes giving
consent” but not if that spouse is “mentally incapacitated.” What is the difference? Or is this just poor drafting?
Ohio law distinguishes between spouses “living separately
and apart” and those who are not. Is
there a difference between Iowa’s distinction between cohabiting and
noncohabiting spouses and Ohio’s distinction?
To may lay mind, spouses living separately and apart implies that they
are neither living in the same place nor have an ongoing sexual
relationship. Is that correct?
Are certain forms of consensual bondage prohibited because
they render one partner “physically helpless”?
What if, a la the Iliad, both partners are consensually rendered
physically helpless by a third party?
Can this Iowa prohibition be upheld after Lawrence v. Texas?
3. Some
jurisprudential questions:
Why should it matter whether the spouses are cohabiting or
not?
Is there a difference between “too demented to consent” and “too
drunk to consent”? Should there be? Note that in Ohio, but not apparently in
Iowa, there is no such thing as “too drunk to consent” between spouses who are
not “living separately and apart.”
Should marriage serve as affirmative consent to sexual
relations in the absence of any signs of refusal?
For a related post, see here.
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